TTF "Read Da Book": The Christian Bible
Posted: Fri Feb 19, 2016 2:44 am
Quote from: drizabone on Feb 18, 2016, 01:51PMQuote from: MoominDave on Feb 18, 2016, 02:53AMHow does the presence of God change it?I think that is related to a point you made on ch15 where you said "2) A moral system that impels people to execute someone for gathering sticks on a holiday day... I would submit is not a moral system promoting entirely good morals." and I said I agreed if you assumed the absence of God.
So what I meant by referring to the "presence of God" was the implication that the rule wasn't just that gathering sticks on Saturday was bad, in which case it wasn't that bad in itself so the death penalty was a gross over-reaction, but that gathering sticks on Saturday was disobeying God so:
- it was in effect giving God the finger
- breaking the covenant between God and Israel and putting Israel at the risk of God's disgruntlement.
and it was that attitude and the danger it posed to Israel that warranted such a significant punishment.
I guess we'll have to depart from one another in finding this reasonable. To me this is an arbitrary exercise of power that seems rather trying - "Oh, for goodness' sake" to me. Like the forbidden tree at the start of Genesis, it's asking something that is on the face of things quite senseless, that is only a problem because God chooses to make it a problem.
One can say "We cannot understand what is reasonable to God; he is a being beyond our comprehension". But in the absence of clear evidence for his existence, this looks like sweeping the question under the carpet.
Quote from: drizabone on Feb 18, 2016, 01:51PMQuote from: MoominDave on Feb 18, 2016, 02:53AMI'd still be interested to see the passage(s) in question. This point about what looks like clear hypocrisy from some on the subject of condemning homosexuality keeps coming back, and I think we won't get clear of it until we're out of Deuteronomy?Just briefly:
- It seems pretty clear that the rules in Exodus, Leviticus, Deuteronomy as specifically told to Israel. That doesn't automatically include Gentile christians unless there is a statement that we are under the law.
- Gentiles are actually told that they are not under the law eg Rom 6:14.
- also Acts 15 tells of an incident where Paul was accused of teaching Jews not to follow the Law. The apostles decided that Gentiles didn't have to follow the Law except for a few items mentioned from v22 on.
- So I read from that that the Law doesn't apply to Gentile Christians, so we don't have to wear blue tassles and the ban on homosex in the Law is irrelevant to us.
- But Romans 1 includes homosex as sinful and that is relevant to christians. This doesn't say homosex is worse than other sins or that homosexuals are inherently worse than other sinners, infact the following verses lists many other wicked things like envy, strife, deceit and being disobedient to parents, foolish, faithless, heartless, ruthless.
So in my understanding of the bible, for christians, homosex is a sin, (just like lying and being disobedient to your parents) but not wearing blue tassles is not a sin.
PS I'm not arguing that christians might not be hypocrits, just not for that reason.
Interesting, and thanks for those. Acts 15:28-29 seems to have the say: "For it has seemed good to the Holy Spirit and to us to lay on you no greater burden than these requirements: that you abstain from what has been sacrificed to idols, and from blood, and from what has been strangled, and from sexual immorality. If you keep yourselves from these, you will do well. Farewell."
Not sure exactly what "from blood" is meant to mean. There have been an awful lot of deaths prosecuted in the name of Christianity over the years, but I wouldn't stretch so far as to say that the tradition cannot be rescued from that - every cause with a long history is soaked in blood if you look back. The "sexual immorality" line is not clearly specified, but I suspect we can be firm that Paul included homosexuality in it - but can we be firm that it is referencing the Torah definitions? Or does it reference what would have been considered the societal norms of his time and place? Either way, as John has pointed out before, it seems unlikely that homosexuality would have been approved of.
But we don't use the same definition in at least one demonstrable way that springs to mind - and (unsurprisingly) I hear no chorus of complaint from Christians on the subject - these days we abhor seeing children and adolescents as sexual objects, whereas the social climates that both Moses and Paul operated in would have seen very the issue very differently.
So in rejecting paedophilia we have changed the Biblical Christian definition of "sexual immorality". Why is it acceptable to refine one part of the definition in one direction, but not to refine another part in another? Are we only allowed to become stricter and stricter over time? Are we not permitted to favour what seems sensible to us over what seemed sensible to very different people in a very different culture at a very different time?
Quote from: drizabone on Feb 18, 2016, 01:51PMQuote from: MoominDave on Feb 18, 2016, 02:53AMI quite liked the analysis of the link I posted earlier in Numbers, which concluded that the total population of Israel at this time was 20,000-40,000, pointing out the word translated as "thousand" in the census actually meant "tribal or family group of indeterminate size". This suggested (I thought rather strongly) that the total numbers were about a factor of 20 too high. For a total population of that size, maybe 10-15,000 warriors in total would seem reasonable? Making maybe 3,000-5,000 a significant but resistible rebelling? Which is some way below your lowest estimate above, but not a million miles.
Either this killed most of the population, or it too is inflated as a number. If it has the same 'thousands' error in it, we might deduce that maybe 500-1,000 people actually died - still a big fat disaster.I didn't read that earlier, it sounds pretty reasonable and makes more sense of what's going on with their interactions with other nations.
I was just doing the modelling cause we were talking about you modelling in the science thread and I wanted to be one too. I think I failed
Got your catwalk right here...
Seriously, no, that's not a fail. You've used logic to decide that an assumption's not right. You're advancing your knowledge by pinpointing the location of where the thing that is causing confusion is.
Quote from: drizabone on Feb 18, 2016, 01:51PMQuote from: MoominDave on Feb 18, 2016, 02:53AMFirstly, let us note but leave aside the question I have concerning whether the textual description of events has been inflated to sound more dramatic - e.g. did Moses do something like burn them all in an enclosure, then throw them into a mass grave? I could quite easily see the Mosaic propaganda machine spin that this way.
Leaving that aside, yes, that's what I mean. It clearly says that the Israelites blamed Moses for it, not God. In fact, it's been notable that in general the Israelites, in their "stiffnecked" grumbliness, have been taking issue with the power in front of them (i.e. Moses), rather than the backing-up supernatural power that Moses has been throughout claiming is behind him. Is it only me that thinks that the general Israelite sentiment with all this throughout has been that Moses has been spinning them a tale? But one giving them useful motivation, that they're happy to tag along with, so long as he doesn't lead them into trouble. He must have been a man of rare charisma.Ok I understand your point now. My point was that as it was happening they acknowledged God as the source of the disasters, but later they wanted to blame Moses. It seems that they or the writer are being inconsistent or that there is a reason for them to change - so what did the propaganda machine want us to think?
And no, I don't see it as Moses spinning a tale, but you knew that already.
But I think that if you approach it without the preconception that it must be talking of real things, this is quite an intuitive way to react to it - do you agree?
So what I meant by referring to the "presence of God" was the implication that the rule wasn't just that gathering sticks on Saturday was bad, in which case it wasn't that bad in itself so the death penalty was a gross over-reaction, but that gathering sticks on Saturday was disobeying God so:
- it was in effect giving God the finger
- breaking the covenant between God and Israel and putting Israel at the risk of God's disgruntlement.
and it was that attitude and the danger it posed to Israel that warranted such a significant punishment.
I guess we'll have to depart from one another in finding this reasonable. To me this is an arbitrary exercise of power that seems rather trying - "Oh, for goodness' sake" to me. Like the forbidden tree at the start of Genesis, it's asking something that is on the face of things quite senseless, that is only a problem because God chooses to make it a problem.
One can say "We cannot understand what is reasonable to God; he is a being beyond our comprehension". But in the absence of clear evidence for his existence, this looks like sweeping the question under the carpet.
Quote from: drizabone on Feb 18, 2016, 01:51PMQuote from: MoominDave on Feb 18, 2016, 02:53AMI'd still be interested to see the passage(s) in question. This point about what looks like clear hypocrisy from some on the subject of condemning homosexuality keeps coming back, and I think we won't get clear of it until we're out of Deuteronomy?Just briefly:
- It seems pretty clear that the rules in Exodus, Leviticus, Deuteronomy as specifically told to Israel. That doesn't automatically include Gentile christians unless there is a statement that we are under the law.
- Gentiles are actually told that they are not under the law eg Rom 6:14.
- also Acts 15 tells of an incident where Paul was accused of teaching Jews not to follow the Law. The apostles decided that Gentiles didn't have to follow the Law except for a few items mentioned from v22 on.
- So I read from that that the Law doesn't apply to Gentile Christians, so we don't have to wear blue tassles and the ban on homosex in the Law is irrelevant to us.
- But Romans 1 includes homosex as sinful and that is relevant to christians. This doesn't say homosex is worse than other sins or that homosexuals are inherently worse than other sinners, infact the following verses lists many other wicked things like envy, strife, deceit and being disobedient to parents, foolish, faithless, heartless, ruthless.
So in my understanding of the bible, for christians, homosex is a sin, (just like lying and being disobedient to your parents) but not wearing blue tassles is not a sin.
PS I'm not arguing that christians might not be hypocrits, just not for that reason.
Interesting, and thanks for those. Acts 15:28-29 seems to have the say: "For it has seemed good to the Holy Spirit and to us to lay on you no greater burden than these requirements: that you abstain from what has been sacrificed to idols, and from blood, and from what has been strangled, and from sexual immorality. If you keep yourselves from these, you will do well. Farewell."
Not sure exactly what "from blood" is meant to mean. There have been an awful lot of deaths prosecuted in the name of Christianity over the years, but I wouldn't stretch so far as to say that the tradition cannot be rescued from that - every cause with a long history is soaked in blood if you look back. The "sexual immorality" line is not clearly specified, but I suspect we can be firm that Paul included homosexuality in it - but can we be firm that it is referencing the Torah definitions? Or does it reference what would have been considered the societal norms of his time and place? Either way, as John has pointed out before, it seems unlikely that homosexuality would have been approved of.
But we don't use the same definition in at least one demonstrable way that springs to mind - and (unsurprisingly) I hear no chorus of complaint from Christians on the subject - these days we abhor seeing children and adolescents as sexual objects, whereas the social climates that both Moses and Paul operated in would have seen very the issue very differently.
So in rejecting paedophilia we have changed the Biblical Christian definition of "sexual immorality". Why is it acceptable to refine one part of the definition in one direction, but not to refine another part in another? Are we only allowed to become stricter and stricter over time? Are we not permitted to favour what seems sensible to us over what seemed sensible to very different people in a very different culture at a very different time?
Quote from: drizabone on Feb 18, 2016, 01:51PMQuote from: MoominDave on Feb 18, 2016, 02:53AMI quite liked the analysis of the link I posted earlier in Numbers, which concluded that the total population of Israel at this time was 20,000-40,000, pointing out the word translated as "thousand" in the census actually meant "tribal or family group of indeterminate size". This suggested (I thought rather strongly) that the total numbers were about a factor of 20 too high. For a total population of that size, maybe 10-15,000 warriors in total would seem reasonable? Making maybe 3,000-5,000 a significant but resistible rebelling? Which is some way below your lowest estimate above, but not a million miles.
Either this killed most of the population, or it too is inflated as a number. If it has the same 'thousands' error in it, we might deduce that maybe 500-1,000 people actually died - still a big fat disaster.I didn't read that earlier, it sounds pretty reasonable and makes more sense of what's going on with their interactions with other nations.
I was just doing the modelling cause we were talking about you modelling in the science thread and I wanted to be one too. I think I failed

Got your catwalk right here...

Seriously, no, that's not a fail. You've used logic to decide that an assumption's not right. You're advancing your knowledge by pinpointing the location of where the thing that is causing confusion is.
Quote from: drizabone on Feb 18, 2016, 01:51PMQuote from: MoominDave on Feb 18, 2016, 02:53AMFirstly, let us note but leave aside the question I have concerning whether the textual description of events has been inflated to sound more dramatic - e.g. did Moses do something like burn them all in an enclosure, then throw them into a mass grave? I could quite easily see the Mosaic propaganda machine spin that this way.
Leaving that aside, yes, that's what I mean. It clearly says that the Israelites blamed Moses for it, not God. In fact, it's been notable that in general the Israelites, in their "stiffnecked" grumbliness, have been taking issue with the power in front of them (i.e. Moses), rather than the backing-up supernatural power that Moses has been throughout claiming is behind him. Is it only me that thinks that the general Israelite sentiment with all this throughout has been that Moses has been spinning them a tale? But one giving them useful motivation, that they're happy to tag along with, so long as he doesn't lead them into trouble. He must have been a man of rare charisma.Ok I understand your point now. My point was that as it was happening they acknowledged God as the source of the disasters, but later they wanted to blame Moses. It seems that they or the writer are being inconsistent or that there is a reason for them to change - so what did the propaganda machine want us to think?
And no, I don't see it as Moses spinning a tale, but you knew that already.

But I think that if you approach it without the preconception that it must be talking of real things, this is quite an intuitive way to react to it - do you agree?